polarization and 3-bets

3-bets and polarization

This is a pretty old topic and many already know it, but since I’m bored and can’t think of too many conceptual topics to discuss, I guess I’ll discuss this one.

We often hear the word ‘polarized’ very often in the forums. What does polarized mean?

Well, two poles. Oftentimes in poker, it means two poles- a very strong hand and a very weak hand. If there is a large middle range, the range can no longer be classified as ‘polarized’.

For example- MP bets the river on a 45K72 board with 4. BTN raises his river bet. MP now decides to 3-bet it.

This is a good example of a polarized range (I think?). Most people are not capable of doing this without anything but the A or air. It’s rare that villain will bet/3-bet with the Q himself, as it is rare to get value from lesser spades and it’s almost illogical for villain to be raising many worse spades on the river himself to begin.

Now, the number of combos containing the A is obviously smaller than villain’s total bluffing range. But nonetheless, the range is still polarized, in the sense that MP rarely will have something like a medium hand (ie. T) in this situation.

Weighting is another word that is often dismissed in this discussion. Sure, someone’s range can be polarized in many instances, but the weighting of a range is often just as important when hand reading.

For instance, take this basic example-

BTN opens, BB calls preflop. Flop: A62r. BB checks, BTN bets, BB check/raises.

Now, whether or not the check raise is good or bad, we will dismiss. I personally think it’s pretty bad with whatever he has (unless some crazy images/history/reads are there) but whatever.

In this such example, BB’s range can be fairly polarized. Oftentimes players will not c/r a medium hand here such as 6x/Ax type hands. It’s a process of elimination in most cases- most of BB’s range here for strong aces (something like AK/AQ) are going to just be 3-betting preflop. By calling, he often has eliminated those such hands from his range (perhaps not 100 of the time, but enough to generally enough to make such an assumption).

Ok, sure, his range is polarized then. In this case, it will oftentimes be more WEIGHTED towards bluffy hands. Why is this?

-It all comes down to hand reading. Based on our first assumption (that he typically will 3-bet hands like AQ/AK/AJ/etc, it is difficult for many strong aces here).
-There are no draws present, therefore difficult for him to have many semi-bluffs.
-There are naturally less combos of 66/22 than there are all other hands. Sets and 2pairs (A6/A2) are generally pretty hard to hit. And the likelihood that he even has A6/A2 are small to begin (general assumptions again).

With that thought process, I would make a generalized assumption that villain cannot have (too) large of a value range.

In the leveling war, this can often work to his advantage. While I said that I generally like to check/call on a board like this with a vast majority of my own range, c/r-ing can accomplish some different stuff.
-Against a decent hand reader (one who might have similar thoughts as my own on his range), one might realize that a check/raising range is (typically) going to be weaker on a board like this. That is, it’s difficult to have a tremendous amount of value hands here. When playing against such a strange tight range, BB’s check/raise may induce BTN to spaz out with a weaker range than had he decided to just check/call the flop like normal.

I would oftentimes more take this line (BB’s check/raise) for value than bluff against better opponents. Though it obviously depends how spazzy I think that BTN will be.

Ok, enough on that. What does this all have to do with polarized preflop 3-betting?

As I stated previously, oftentimes 3-bets are polarized. They are often really good hands (AK/AA/AQ/QQ/etc) or pretty bad hands (J5s). The definitions of both ‘good’ hands and ‘bad’ hands can fluctuate greatly, depending on history and opponent.

For instance, against a donkey opening many many hands, 3-betting a hand like KQ preflop may have more value than it would against a more passive player. (Obviously debatable). Or a nit opens UTG, suddenly 3-betting TT or JJ may seem like wasted value in many instances when the nit wakes up and 4-bets you (and you’re in a cluster**** spot).

Ranges change with each hand. As we gather more information on our opponents and their play, ranges change. What are some of the reasons why 3-bets are often polarized preflop?

-people don’t like to get 4-bet with hands they want to see the flop with. Oftentimes you can throw hands like QJs/77/etc in this range. Say you 3-bet both and get 4-bet. What is your plan? With these hands, it’s almost wasteful.
-Like all hands, players often like to make the ‘easiest’ play possible. And with polarizing your 3-bets, knowing a very easy response to villain’s actions will often make things
Easier (for instance- you 3-bet villain with 82s. he 4-bets. It’s a pretty no brainer fold. Or you 3-bet villain with AK, he 4-bets. Seems like an easy jam). With medium hands like 88/AJ, it’s a bit harder to decide.

Poker is about adapting. Remember that strict preflop regiments is not a fantastic way to think about poker (in an overall broad sense). Understand that value and bluffing ranges can change, especially so in aggressive games. There are plenty of times where I 3-bet 88 BTN vs. blind with the intention of getting it in preflop. Alternately, there are times when I’ll just flat call a PFR from a nittish UTG with such a hand. Remember that ranges always change, and if your image is ****, your opponents

anyways sry to waste time, just bored as hell, could write more but meh, w/e. stuck in fucking

Milwaukee for the next few hours. FML